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Does anyone know why company A would allow employees to contibute 18% of their income to their 401K while company B allows only a 15% contribution? What benefit do they gain by keeping the % at a lower level? If the answer involves "discrimination testing" could someone include a lttle more detail regarding how that actual works vis-a-vis the differential in %'s allowed.

This is really bugging me as my wife (over 50) cannot contribute the additional $1000 catch-up allowed in the new tax law since she cannot reach the $11,000 max due to her company's %. Seems pretty "discriminatory" to me.

Thanks in advance.
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