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>> This looks like a no-brainer, as she gets the deduction for 2009 but all the money ends up in a Roth. That's the reason I feel there must be some sort of rule prohibiting this. Can someone inform me? Thanks much! <<

I don't believe there's a problem with this. It's really not a free lunch, as you will be "paying back" the value of the 2009 tax deduction with the taxes paid on the conversion in 2010.

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