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Hi, I just want to make sure that I'm clear on your statement. I know that the self-employed have to bill out at a higher rate than I might expect because of the number of unbillable hours and whatnot. But, from what you say, $2/hr. billable equates to less than $1/hr. fulltime ordinary. Is it really that bad?

Take a look at this post I wrote on the Webmaster's Board. If you have further questions, come on back and we'll discuss it -

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