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I mentioned it to my doctor and she said that, absent my mother's similar test (mother is long-dead from another condition), there's no point in my getting tested until after they know if my sister is positive for BACCa (I may be getting this wrong). Anyway...does any of this make sense to you?

Yes, it does make sense. And this explains why.

"What does a positive BRCA1 or BRCA2 test result mean?
In a family with a history of breast and/or ovarian cancer, it may be most informative to first test a family member who has the disease. If that person is found to have an altered BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene, the specific change is referred to as a ”known mutation.” Other family members can then be tested to see if they also carry that specific alteration. In this scenario, a positive test result indicates that a person has inherited a known mutation in BRCA1 or BRCA2 and has an increased risk of developing certain cancers, as described above. However, a positive result provides information only about a person's risk of developing cancer. It cannot tell whether cancer will actually develop-or when. It is also impossible to predict the effectiveness of special screening or preventive medical procedures for people with alterations in BRCA1 or BRCA2. Not all women who inherit an altered gene will develop breast or ovarian cancer.

A positive test result may have important health and social implications for family members, including future generations. Unlike most other medical tests, genetic tests can reveal information not only about the person being tested, but also about that person's relatives. Both men and women who inherit an altered BRCA1 or BRCA2 gene, whether or not they get cancer themselves, may pass the alteration on to their sons and daughters. However, not all children of people who have an altered gene will inherit the alteration."

This is from....

SO glad your sister's situation is looking good.

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