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If a fetus is a person, and the woman doesn't want the fetus to feed off of her, then she is being subjected to forced servitude.

Why is it conditional on the status of the fetus? Regardless of whether the fetus is a person, if the woman doesn't want it to feed off her, she's being subjected to forced servitude.

Making the servitude argument contingent on the status of the fetus also inverts the entire Roe framework. Under Roe, the interest of the state in protecting the fetus increases as the fetus develops and comes closer to 'personhood,' especially after viability - which is why a woman's rights are more protected early in the pregnancy than later. However, if the fetus' 'personhood' affects servitude status, then that condition would be greater later in the pregnancy - arguing that the woman should have a greater right to terminate as the pregnancy increases rather than earlier.

But again, we force people to do things they don't want to do all the time - and it's not 'servitude.' Parents are forced to take care of their kids after they're born, subject to criminal liability if they fail to do so - even if they don't want to feed their kids, they're still going to jail if they don't. Having an obligation to feed your kids isn't chattel slavery.

Albaby
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