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if a person covered by Medicare desires care, and Medicare says "we pay for that sort of treatment in some cases, but you don't qualify according to our rules"... then any doctor who provides the treatment and receives payment for it is completely disqualified from Medicare.

This is the first I have heard of this.

I am outraged.


Do you have any idea where I could get verification of this. I would like to use it in the future, because I always understood the exact opposite.

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