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No. of Recommendations: 37
I'm not surprised that an immoral and unconstitutional practice produces net negative results for all.

On the other hand, I don't think that benefits to a single individual change the basic immorality and overall negative impact of affirmative action.

Should it matter if an immoral act somehow benefits the perpetrator?

Should I be less outraged if a mugger uses my money to buy a book instead of crack or liquor?

Should I be less outraged if an assailant pummels me but benefits from the aerobic exercise?

Should slaves have been less outraged if plantation owners profited from their enslavement?

Why is racism more palatable when we call it by another name?

Does anybody think that politicians would vote for "affirmative action" if it was correctly labeled "government racism?"

Does anybody think "affirmative action" would last if schools or employers were forced to tell victims that they lost out because of their skin color?

Does anybody think that "affirmative action" would last if those who benefitted were forced to go to the home of the victim and thank them for their job or educational opportunity?

The immorality of an act is the same whether perpetrated by government or an individual.

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