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[[Just read your post and I realize much time has passed, but thought I'd reply anyway. In a similar
circumstance, I was surprised to find that because we we occupied the house more than 14 days in
the year of conversion from residence to rental property, the rental was forevermore treated under
vacation home rules (even though we didn't occupy it at all after the conversion). ]]

If I understand what you are telling me, I don't think that your information is correct. It MIGHT be correct in the year that the property was "mixed use", but certainly not correct in the years FOLLOWING the conversion.

[[ As I recall, the consequence of that is that your expenses plus depreciation can't exceed rental
income, so it doesn't serve to shelter other income. Just want you to go in with your eyes open. If
this is an issue for you you may want to confirm it with a tax lawyer or someone else here.]]

That's very basically correct...for "mixed use" property. But, again, this might only apply in the year of conversion, and should NOT have applied in any years after the conversion from personal property to rental property.

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Roy

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