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Lets start with a little primer.

Thank you for this primer. It has certainly helped me in my efforts to better understand the issue of patents as they apply to genes.

How can a human gene, which is natural, be patentable if it has to be “made by man?” Well, the USPTO currently considers a gene to be made by man if it has been purified. Purified is defined as separated from its natural surroundings. The rationale is that it doesn't exist in nature in this purified state and it got there through the hand of a person and is therefore “made by man.”

Is this logic equating purification with "made by man" applied to any other substance?

TIA.

Doug
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