Skip to main content
Message Font: Serif | Sans-Serif
No. of Recommendations: 0
Is the following scenario feasible:

I sell my house, invest the equity from the sale into a mutual fund (or other investment fund), and move to Europe (I am married to a Dutch citizen).

While living in Europe I earn little or no income to report to the IRS and only report the amount of return on my investment.

Is it possible that I may not even need to pay taxes on my investment if my return is the only income I have and the amount of my return is equal to or less than poverty level.

For hypothetical purposes lets assume an investment of $25,000 with a rate of return of about 10% and living abroad for a period of 5 years.

Print the post  


In accordance with IRS Circular 230, you cannot use the contents of any post on The Motley Fool's message boards to avoid tax-related penalties under the Internal Revenue Code or applicable state or local tax law provisions.
What was Your Dumbest Investment?
Share it with us -- and learn from others' stories of flubs.
When Life Gives You Lemons
We all have had hardships and made poor decisions. The important thing is how we respond and grow. Read the story of a Fool who started from nothing, and looks to gain everything.
Contact Us
Contact Customer Service and other Fool departments here.
Work for Fools?
Winner of the Washingtonian great places to work, and Glassdoor #1 Company to Work For 2015! Have access to all of TMF's online and email products for FREE, and be paid for your contributions to TMF! Click the link and start your Fool career.