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<<My wife's father and my wife equally owned some property which was recently sold. The proceeds,
according to my father-in-law, pass "tax-free" to our children ($10,000/child) plus the share my
father-in-law owned he passed to my wife (his daughter) tax-free. My wife and I would like to
invest the proceeds in a BTD strategy. Is it necessary to make this investment in a UGMA or
UTMA to realize the tax break of the proceeds from the sale? If I don't use a UGMA or UTMA
have I lost anything?>>

As KAT correctly points out, there may be something lost in the translation. But if gifting is what you (and grandad) have in mind, then I would certainly consider the use of a UGMA account.

But first, I think you need to get a firmer grip on the actual transaction.

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