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My husband and I bought our current house and escrow closed on July 27, 2001. We are now in the process of buying a new house in a new development and they have a move-in date of June 24, 2003. So we are just about a month shy of the 2 year mark. What I am wondering is, do they figure the 2 year mark from the actual date (July 27th) or just from the month (July 2003).

As previously noted, it's the full 2 years.

Can you afford to own both properties for a month? As long as you didn't move into the new or sell the old until you met the 2-year requirement for the old house, you'd be home free.

Phil
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