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Perhaps I engaged the keyboard before my mind was operating properly. Or perhaps I was confused by the OP.


The statement is very confusing, and not accurate. The more I read it, the less sense it makes.

A wash sale occurs when a stock is sold for a capital loss and the purchase and sale occur within a 31 day period of time.

This is not true. It is the repurchase of shares within the 31 day period that triggers the wash sale. You can sell stock instantly at a loss and realize the loss, as long as the stock is not repurchased within 31 days.

In order to realize the loss you would have to buy the stock again, hold for at least 31 days, and then sell it.

This continues the confused first statement. Somehow, buying the stock again is suppose to fix a non-existent problem of not holding the first shares for 31 days.
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