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Peter,

Since you are almost always correct,


I think I have too many people fooled on that one. ;-) I hope I get more right than wrong, but I have my fair share of mistakes.

I hate to disagree.

Disagree away. Especially when I'm wrong.

The fractional share was sold as a result of a stock split.

It was??!!? <pause while the OP is reread> <uncomfortable additional pause>

Ummm. ... ... Yes. It was.

The partial share that was sold was probably a partial split adjusted share; therefore, would not the cost basis need to be adjusted for the split?

Good point. So to correctly answer the question, we'd need a bit more information. We'd need to know the split ratio. We probably will need the next purchase after that original 1 share purchase. And if the next purchase was a DRIP purchase, we'll probably need all of the purchases until the next full share purchase. And we'd need to verify if the fractional share sale was pre- or post-split. (Probably should do that first, 'cause in the unlikely case it's pre-split I got lucky and my answer was right - and no additional work would be necessary.)

--Peter <== getting today's mistake out of the way early.
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