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You are correct in that we are thinking of moving to Texas in the future. If we move into the Texas home that was exchanged for the California rental home after several years, then it seems we would avoid both federal and ca tax except that part due to being a rental starting in 2009. Is that correct?

As an aside, the California rental home was an exchange from Maryland about 12 years ago. I am not even going to ask if MD has a claim on any of the gain in the end!
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