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"You can't sell stocks in your 401(k) to buy bonds in your Roth IRA or that might be considered a distribution."

Have not read the book, but if you take the statement literally - it implies that the proceeds from the sale of stock in the 401(k) would be used to purchase bonds in the Roth IRA. That would be a distribution from the 401(k), or if done correctly, possibly a conversion from the 401(k) to the Roth IRA.

I mean how do you come up with that percentage?

In this case:

(44.19 - 18.25)/44.19 = 0.587 or 58.7%

In general, (52 week high - 52 week low)/52 week high

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