No. of Recommendations: 0

I am having trouble finding confirmation that there's a minimum of one year that has to pass between when someone recharacterizes a Roth back to traditional (tech fund lower now than when we converted it) and when it can then be re-converted back to this true?

We would owe significant taxes this year because it was converted as of 12/31/99 (silly--my DH forgot to do it earlier--argh) but we're trying to figure out if there's a way to get the balance down to what it probably will be for the next few weeks or months and pay taxes on that. If we have to wait until April of next year it'll probably be up again.

Does this make sense to anyone? If so, PLEASE help. Or if I can clarify, I'd be glad to.

Thanks in advance,
Print the post  


The Retirement Investing Board
This is the board for all discussions related to Investing for and during retirement. To keep the board relevant and Foolish to everyone, please avoid making any posts pertaining to political partisanship. Fool on and Retire on!
When Life Gives You Lemons
We all have had hardships and made poor decisions. The important thing is how we respond and grow. Read the story of a Fool who started from nothing, and looks to gain everything.
Contact Us
Contact Customer Service and other Fool departments here.
Work for Fools?
Winner of the Washingtonian great places to work, and Glassdoor #1 Company to Work For 2015! Have access to all of TMF's online and email products for FREE, and be paid for your contributions to TMF! Click the link and start your Fool career.