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I'm married and we've owned our home for a little less than 2 years. My house is for sale and we have an offer with a closing date 2 months prior to the 2 year anniversary. I am not selling due to health problems or change in employment.

According IRS publication 523 I am not entitled to excluded any gain from the sale of my home. However, in the fool article below:

right after example 6, the paragraph that starts with 'So, what happens if you don't meet the qualifications?' leads me to believe that I can exclude part of the gains anyway.

Am I missinterpreting the article, or is this part of the arcticle wrong?
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