Skip to main content
Message Font: Serif | Sans-Serif
No. of Recommendations: 3
Regarding bioequivalence, I would expand a bit on what has been said, to add that the "acceptable range" you speak of can refer to a degree of variance in the amount of drug present in the formulation as compared to the branded medicine.

A hypothetical example: Brand name Drug X is precisely 2.0mg, no more, no less. When you buy it, you know exactly what you're getting, guaranteed. Requirements for the generic version of Drug X are less stringent, and the generic is allowed to have 1.8-2.2mg.

For many drugs this degree of variance may not have significant consequence. In other cases it may: warfarin (blood thinner) and anticonvulsants come to mind as being potentially significant differences b/w branded and generics (but not necessarily the case).

Other differences b/w trade/generic can include rates (or amount) of absorption due to differences in "carrier" composition, that is the stuff that forms the physical pill that is a substance other than the active medication.

Hope this helps.
Print the post  


What was Your Dumbest Investment?
Share it with us -- and learn from others' stories of flubs.
When Life Gives You Lemons
We all have had hardships and made poor decisions. The important thing is how we respond and grow. Read the story of a Fool who started from nothing, and looks to gain everything.
Contact Us
Contact Customer Service and other Fool departments here.
Work for Fools?
Winner of the Washingtonian great places to work, and Glassdoor #1 Company to Work For 2015! Have access to all of TMF's online and email products for FREE, and be paid for your contributions to TMF! Click the link and start your Fool career.