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I think I know the answer to this, and hope it's correct because it's what I've been doing forever.

Brokerages/Transfer Agents report dollar amount of dividend, cost of stock and quantity of stock:

As reported on statement, dividend amt x cost of stock does not generally equal dividend amount. I think this is due to them averaging different cost of multiple purchases with dividends that are being reinvested by them.

Generally it is within pennies or fractions of pennies but occasionally it can be up to $0.10 difference per share.

I use the dollar amt of dividend x the stock quantity issued to establish the actual cost basis of the purchase.

Is this the correct way to treat reinvested dividends?


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