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Greetings all - I have a Vanguard IRA account and need to do an RMD. I also have a regular non-retirement brokerage account. Don't need the cash but have to do an RMD. According to Vanguard, I can do an in-kind transfer of securities from the IRA to the non-retirement brokerage account. However, my understanding was that the cost basis would be calculated as of the date of transfer, not the original purchase in the IRA account. There is no advantage then to do this? It's actually easier (no paperwork) to sell the appropriate RMD amount of a security, transfer the cash to the non-retirement brokerage account, and then buy back the stock.

Just wondering if the logic is correct and if anybody has any thoughts to this, or a better way.

Thanks all!
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