Skip to main content
Message Font: Serif | Sans-Serif
No. of Recommendations: 0
My husband purchased a house in 1997 as his primary residence (we were not married at the time). We got married in November 2005 and he continued to live in his house until June 2006. I continued to live in my own house in nearby town during this time. He rented his house from June 2006 through December 2008. Improvements were made to the home in 2009 and it was sold May 15, 2009.

My question is, can we exclude the gains from the sale of the house on our taxes? Technically, I believe that May 14 2004 through June 2006 would qualify as the two years as a primary residence but does it matter that it was not my primary residence (only his) since we were married during that time? We have filed Jointly since we've been married.
Print the post  


In accordance with IRS Circular 230, you cannot use the contents of any post on The Motley Fool's message boards to avoid tax-related penalties under the Internal Revenue Code or applicable state or local tax law provisions.
What was Your Dumbest Investment?
Share it with us -- and learn from others' stories of flubs.
When Life Gives You Lemons
We all have had hardships and made poor decisions. The important thing is how we respond and grow. Read the story of a Fool who started from nothing, and looks to gain everything.
Contact Us
Contact Customer Service and other Fool departments here.
Work for Fools?
Winner of the Washingtonian great places to work, and Glassdoor #1 Company to Work For 2015! Have access to all of TMF's online and email products for FREE, and be paid for your contributions to TMF! Click the link and start your Fool career.