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I own shares of BRK.B in different (taxable) brokerage accounts. I would like to sell some B shares and replace them with A shares, as the spread is about nil (30:1 assumed).

In one account, I have owned the shares for over 5 years. Cost basis well below market. Selling "these" shares to go into A shares would create a taxable event that I would be a fool to initiate.

In the other account, I own shares just slightly above current levels. From a tax standpoint, "these shares" could be sold and replaced with A's without tax consequence.

However, the brokerage company for the second group of shares has an online restriction on trading BRK.A shares, and they require the help of a broker to do the trade on the A shares. That means that I would have the difficult task of legging the trade, paying away the bid-offer spread, and lose the time advantages that I would otherwise have while being able to switch "by myself" online when the spread was favorable. This restriction is not in place at the brokerage where my older B shares reside.

My not about BRK and its 2 classes of shares. It is about the US tax code. Does it matter that I sell shares at one brokerage shop where the actual shares were purchased years ago at lower levels...and assign, for tax purposes, the acquisition cost of shares actually purchased at another broker? In theory, I could move shares from the first broker to the second, but that seems redundant. Does the IRS really care which broker did my trades for certain shares sold? Or does it just matter that I accurately assign a price to shares sold?


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