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In this months "Stages" magazine, Peter Lynch maid a claim about bonds that surprised me and I hope that someone here (TMFPixy, maybe) can explain.

Lynch said, "In the 10 years from 1972 to 1982, for example, both government bonds and money markets outgained stocks."

Do you think Lynch is ignoring dividends paid out by stocks, or do you think he is counting both capital gains and dividends? I remember reading (I'll try to check my library tonight) that stocks have outperformed all other "normal" classes of investments in any 10 year period since 1920.

thanks in advance,
John Power
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