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Hi all! It seems like only a year ago I visited this board.......! ;)

This past year, Wrigley had a stock split, and it forced the sale of the fractional shares I held in their DRiP. I looked through the board here and found this post on the topic:
(thanks Ira!)

But I am still confused. I have never sold any stock before, so this is a little new to me. I don't know how to figure a cost basis, and don't know how to reort this sale. I can tell you this, the forced sale was .532 shares @ $46.55 a share on 5/01/06. My earliest buy in the company was 10/11/04, and I bought 1 share at $62.11.

If I read the above referenced post correctly, then the buy price on the fractional comes from my earliest holding, which would be $62.11. Then, Ira goes on to point out that "Your cost basis is the fractional number of shares sold divided by the total shares in the earliest lot after the split times the cost basis of the earliest lot."

The earliest lot after the split (I am assuming he means the first shares I purchased after the split?) which would have been a reinvested dividend purchased .042 shares @$47.205.

I am pretty confused about what to do with this, and it seems paltry as the total amount was only $24.76, but I don't want to screw this up. Any one care to lend a hand to a mathematically challenged person? Thanks in advance....

Mike in NJ
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