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Hi,

I have a question about these rules.

If I 'choose' to sell stocks bought more than 30 days before the date of sell at a loss (but I do not 'choose' the lot I did buy within 30 days), then will this loss be disallowed under the rules?

Or in other word, is the date of purchase of the lot sold irrelevant for wash sale purposes if there was a purchase within 30 days before and after the sell date?

Thanks for your help.
alpha
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Perhaps I should add that if I 'chose' the lot bought within 30 days of sale there would have been a capital gain.
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If you choose a lot that makes the sale profitable then wash sale isn't involved. When the lot chosen results in a loss, the date of its purchase isn't what determines the wash sale. It is the repurchase of shares within 30 days before or after.
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Thanks VKG.

I sold today, say, 300 shares bought a year ago and incurred a loss. Also, I bought 100 shares of the same company a few days ago and if I sold them today (which I did not) there will be a gain. How will the loss be calculated?

Cheers.
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The answer depends on how many total shares you own. If you don't own any shares of this company for 30 days after the last sale and the sales are within the same calendar year, then wash sale calculations are unnecessary. All losses are realized.
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