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well, one thing to keep in mind, is that in your contract/agreement or whatever, you should make no mention of it being in consideration for love or any terms indicating intimacy. the courts tend to hold that the contract is invalid, in cases where there is any implication that monetary gain is being exhanged for an intimate relationship.

Your comment seems to address how a judge would handle a contract/agreement in court if it says for "consideration of love" etc., but if it were put on a deed would it make the deed invalid?

Thanks for your reply.
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